thundril wrote:I write
In a hi-tech society, the demand for human labour is low.
*Is this wrong? How?
In a hi-tech society, technology can be used to free up human labour. But that just means we can be more efficient. And labour can do other things. There are currently more people in work in the UK than ever before, and yet we have never been so technologically advanced. The demand for labour changes, but doesn't disappear.
I write
The demand for basic necessities, however, continues to be, per head of population, more or less the same .
Is this bit wrong? How?
I think what we regard as basic necessities has changed dramatically over the decades, don't you? Some up, some down.
You write
Price is a consequence of supply and demand, so all sorts of outcomes are possible. Take, for example, milk. There is currently such an oversupply, that most farmers can't make an adequate profit from their cows. The poor are doing rather well on the milk front.
So you agree, in general, that increased supply tends to bring down prices, and increased
effective demand (relative to supply) tends to encourage higher prices. In light of this, can you clarify your claim that my analysis is wrong?
As I understood it, you claimed that prices of "necessities" would necessarily rise, as a consequence of any rise in the incomes of the poor. Where supply is constrained, eg in housing, then yes, this will apply. But that does not apply to all necessities, does it? The prices of water or T-shirts or vegetables have not risen because of the rise in the incomes of the poor.
I write
The price of basic necessities will always be as much as the market can bear.
Is this bit wrong? Can you show
how it is wrong?
The implication I drew from this was that the market would push prices up, whereas we have seen prices fall in many areas instead. For example, cars, mobile phones, TV's etc have all fallen in cost as they can be manufactured much more efficiently in large quantities than in small ones.
I write
The effective demand for basic necessities increases with the amount of money in the pockets of the low-paid majority.
Is this bit wrong? Can you show
how it is wrong?
That depends on the response of the supply-side. It could go up or down. And the demand for "necessities" can decline as incomes rise. Potatoes, say.
I write
(. . the prices of these necessities will increase to suck up all the money the poor have available to them.
Is this bit wrong? Can you show
how it is wrong?
That depends on individual necessities and their relative importance. Housing is very dominant because of the large proportion of income it takes, and because of shortage of supply, so overall, the poor may not see much of a change in their lives as the earnings increase, but that is the fault of housing regulations, not the inevitability of continued poverty is nominal earnings grow.
If the above premises are not wrong, can you show how the conclusion is wrong?
However many hours the poor are willing to work per week, at whatever wage rate they will accept, the sellers of the basic necessities (housing, food, heating) will price their commodities at such levels that the poor will never be able to do much more than just about survive.
The above premises are wrong, so the conclusion doesn't hold.
Specifics, addressing the points themselves, would be appreciated. Introducing oddities like the price of milk can be misleading.
Oh! I thought milk was a specific, and was intended to illuminate, not mislead! I've done what I can, but do respond if you want to.
Do you not agree that the general trend is for the prices of individually-consumed necessities to rise as incomes rise?
No. The general trend is for people to increase their consumption, or to change their consumption patterns to more expensive things. Only if supply is constrained (as it is in housing) will that not apply as strongly.
Certainly you appear to agree with me that accommodation prices will continue to rise as long as supply is far lower than demand.
Hmmm.... demand changes according to the cost. If land was £5 an acre, then I'd buy quite a lot. If it is £10,000 an acre, then I'd rather spend my money on other things. So land prices will rise, until the amount demanded
at that price is the same as the amount supplied at that price. But of course, that can also work in reverse, hence my Detroit example.
(Exactly why the supply of housing is lower than demand is another matter.)
OK
The fact is, as long as supply remains substantially lower than the effective demand, rents will rise to whatever the market will bear; at the lower end of the uk market, these prices stay at, or slightly above, the maximum housing benefit in any given area.
If supply is low and relatively fixed, the price will equalise at the point where it meets the effective demand. And yes, housing benefit will be an important factor in determining the level of effective demand, by increasing it, the more generous it is. However, if there is a high level of supply, then the price would fall. It would be of no consequence to the landlord that s/he did not receive the maximum allowed, if there was no-one renting the property.
However, rents are likely to follow housing benefit amounts, not only because they are a determinant of effective demand, but also, housing benefit will be set at a level which allows some sort of property to be rented, but if acceptable property is available at lower rents, then the authorities are very likely to cut the benefits, which are intended to provide a home, not a more expensive home.
Detroit would be a very different case in some peculiar aspects, for sure, but the principle still applies. If there were homeless people around Detroit who wanted those houses and could afford to offer a million dollars for one, what do you think the price would be, Nick? How about a million dollars? Can you think of any way it might be less than the best price the market will yield?
You are only taking account of one determinant. Yes, a vendor will seek to maximise the price, but the purchaser (who may be a public institution) will seek to minimise it. So no, it will not be a million dollars. It will be the cheapest at which a property can be purchased.
Which bit of this is factually wrong?
I hope I've explained it...
Finally, which bit of what I wrote looks to you like Malthusianism?
I think it is analogous, not directly Malthusian. What Malthus applied to population, to come to the conclusion that population would always be a crisis levels, you seemed to be applying to the poor, so that, whatever we do, the poverty would always be the same. (If that were true, then cuts in benefit would have no effect either.....)